The Weierstrass function is a non-constant, doubly periodic
function. Its significance appears to be immense, and it has the following properties:
℘(z) converges absolutely and uniformly on compact sets not containing elements of L
℘(z) is meromorphic in C and has double pole at each w∈L
℘(z)=℘(−z) for all z∈C
℘(z+w)=℘(z) for all w∈L
Every doubly periodic function is a rational function of ℘ and its derivative ℘′.
I didn’t delve too deeply into the first two points. I understood that the terms
w21
are included to ensure the sum converges. These terms
make
∣(z−w)21−w21∣
comparable to
∣w31∣.
And it holds:
w∈L,w≠0∑∣wk∣1
converges for
k>2.
The third point is easy to see. For the last point, let’s examine the derivative:
This implies
℘(z+w)−℘(z)
is constant. By setting
z=−w/2,
it quickly becomes evident that this constant is 0.
The fifth point surprises me. Let’s explore what’s behind it.
Every doubly periodic function is a rational function of Weierstrass function and its derivative
First, let’s see
that every function can be expressed as the sum of an even function and an odd function:
f(z)=2f(z)+f(−z)+2f(z)−f(−z)
We can quickly observe that
℘′(z) is an odd function. If a function
f(z) is odd, then ℘′(z)f(z)
is even.
Therefore, it suffices to prove the statement for even functions.
For even functions, we can consider zeros and poles grouped in pairs
F,
each pair being
(w,w3−w).
That’s useful because (being even and doubly periodic):
f(z)=f(−z)=f(w3−z).
Remember,
w3=w1+w2,
and
F
represents the fundamental parallelogram.
Note that if zero or pole occurs at
w3/2,
we take some rational function of
f
where this doesn’t happen.
So, let’s have zeros and poles of
f
in
F:
(z1,w3−z1),...,(zn,w3−zn)
Let’s observe the function:
℘(z)−℘(zi)
It has a double pole at 0 and zeros at
zi
and
w3−zi.
That means
πi=1n(℘(z)−℘(zi))
has the same zeros and poles as
f.
Let’s make them of the same order too:
h(z)=πi=1n(℘(z)−℘(zi))ordzif
Now,
f(z)/h(z)
has no zeros and no poles. That means, it is a constant.
We have proven that any even doubly periodic function is a rational function of
℘(z).
For odd doubly periodic functions, we also need
℘′(z).
Therefore, any doubly periodic function is a rational function of
℘(z)
and
℘′(z).
I have no idea what the general form of the Abel-Jacobi theorem is.
I would very much like to understand it, but currently, my algebraic geometry knowledge is too weak.
But it appears that the special case of the Abel-Jacobi theorem is:
Let
D=∑ni[wi]
be a divisor. Then
D
is the divisor of a function if and only if
deg(D)=∑ni=0
and
∑niwi∈L.
The definition of the divisor of a function
f
is:
div(f)=w∈F∑ordw(f)[w]
The notation [] should just be regarded as a symbol.
That for the divisor of a function
f,
it holds
deg(div(f))=0
and
∑w∈Fw⋅ordw(f)∈L
was discussed last time.
What about the other way around? Can
f
be constructed such that it will have zeros and poles at
wi,
and
ordwif=ni?
Let’s denote
l=∑niwi.
So, we have
l∈L.
Let’s define
f(z)=σ(z−l)σ(z)Πiσ(z−wi)ni
From the fourth point, it follows that
σ(z−l)σ(z)
has no zeros and no poles.
In
F,σ(z−wi)
has simple zeros at
wi.
That means
div(f)=D.